Could someone help me with this exercise? How would I go about this, how would I start?
Let $(a_n)_{n \in \mathbb N}$ be a real sequence. Show that:
$(a_n)_{n \in \mathbb N}$ is convergent in $\mathbb R$ if and only if $$-\infty \lt \liminf_{n\to \infty} a_n = \limsup_{n\to \infty} a_n \lt \infty$$
Start from the definitions:
$$\limsup_{n\rightarrow \infty} a_n:=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} (\sup_{m\geq n}a_m)$$ $$\liminf_{n\rightarrow \infty} a_n:=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} (\inf_{m\geq n}a_m)$$
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} (\inf_{m\geq n}a_m)\leq \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} (\sup_{m\geq n}a_m)$$
Notice that $(\sup_{m\geq n}a_m)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ and $(\inf_{m\geq n}a_m)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ can be seen as subsequences of $(a_n)_{n\in \mathbb N}$.
And we know (as AnotherJohnDoe suggested in the comments) that all the subsequences of a convergent sequence must converge to the same limit (the limit of the original sequence).
So assuming that $\lim_{n\rightarrow \mathbb N} a_n$ exists (is not $\pm\infty$) we must have that $$\limsup_{n\rightarrow \infty}a_n=\liminf_{n\rightarrow \infty}a_n=\lim_{n\rightarrow \mathbb N} a_n$$
Conversely assume that
$$-\infty<\liminf_{n\rightarrow \infty}a_n=\limsup_{n\rightarrow \infty}a_n<\infty$$
$$-\infty<\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} (\inf_{m\geq n}a_m)=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} (\sup_{m\geq n}a_m)<\infty$$
Because $(\inf_{m\geq n}a_m)\leq a_n\leq(\sup_{m\geq n}a_m)$ you just take limits and noticing that the extremes are equal then the sequence must converge.