Derivation: Average distance from point to circle

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I have a question in relation to this previous question:

I understand the answer and its derivation, however, I do not understand the starting point of:

$$ E(d) = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int_{0}^{2\pi} \sqrt{r^{2} + R^{2} + 2 r R \cos \phi} \ \mathrm{d} \phi\ . $$

To my understanding, the formula should start with the law of cosines, which states: $c^2 = a^2 + b^2 − 2ab\cos(C)$ and (in this context) would translate into:

$$d^2 = r^{2} + R^{2} - 2 r R \cos \phi$$

putting this into an integral yields:

$$ E(d) = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int_{0}^{2\pi} \sqrt{r^{2} + R^{2} - 2 r R \cos \phi} \ \mathrm{d} \phi\ . $$

The difference is that in one case $2 r R \cos \phi$ is added and in the other substacted.

Can you tell me where the difference comes from?

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The difference comes whether you start with B for external closing side of triangle or B for internal closing side. But it doesn't matter when taking the average.

In one case you are measuring your d's from A to B, and from B to A in the other, for same sense of angle rotation $\phi$.

Since all distances are positive it does not matter in grouping or summing i.e., whether you are considering $d's$ from maximum $R+r$ to minimum $R-r$ or from minimum $R-r$ to maximum $R+r.$ The evaluated definite integral has the same value.