I have no idea how to get started with such a large $\Bbb Z_{4711}$. The solutions say
"Since $\gcd(1632,4711)=1$ that means 1632 in invertible in $\Bbb Z_{4711}$. So f is invertible and is $f^{-1}(x)=1632^{-1}(x-1792)$ and hence is bijective, injective and surjective."
The definitions of invertibility that we were given referred to numbers, not functions:
A number $a \in \Bbb Z_m$ is invertible iff $gcd(a,m)=1$ (a,m coprime).
and
A number $a \in \Bbb Z_m$" is invertible if $\exists x \in \Bbb Z_m$ such that $ax\equiv 1 \pmod m$. x is an in verse to a.
I don't understand why the solution is interested in checking whether the number 1632 is invertible in $\Bbb Z_{4711}$?
You wrote
Say $y\equiv 1632x+1792$ and we wish to solve for $x$ in terms of $y$.
Well, $y-1792\equiv 1632x$, and then $1632$ is invertible modulo $4711$
(that is, there is an element $k$ of $\mathbb Z_{4711}$ such that $1632k\equiv1\bmod4711$)
implies we can multiply both sides by $k$ to solve for $x$: $$k(y-1792)\equiv x.$$
To illustrate the problems that can occur if the number is not invertible,
consider $y-1\equiv2x$ and $y-2\equiv2x\bmod 4;$
$2$ is not invertible $\bmod 4$,
so there may not be a unique solution $x$.