The formal derivative on $\mathbb{F}_p[t]$ is not onto, since $t^{p-1}$ (for instance) has no antiderivative. Does it have one if we extend the formal derivative to $\mathbb{F}_p(t)$? By the quotient rule, this would be equivalent to finding out if there exist polynomials $f(t)$ and $g(t)$ with $f'(t)g(t)-f(t)g'(t)=t^{p-1}g(t)^2$. I'm guessing it's not possible but don't see how this could be shown.
2026-03-26 16:06:14.1774541174
Does $t^{p-1}$ have an antiderivative in $\Bbb F_q(t)$?
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$\Bbb{F}_p(t)$ is a $\Bbb{F}_p(t^p)$ vector space of dimension $p$, namely
$$\Bbb{F}_p(t)=\bigoplus_{n=0}^{p-1} t^n \Bbb{F}_p(t^p)$$ $( \Bbb{F}_p(t^p))'=0$ so $(t^n \Bbb{F}_p(t^p))' = nt^{n-1}\Bbb{F}_p(t^p)$ ie.
$$(\Bbb{F}_p(t))' = \bigoplus_{n=1}^{p-1} nt^{n-1} \Bbb{F}_p(t^p)= \bigoplus_{n=0}^{p-2} t^n \Bbb{F}_p(t^p)$$