Let $k$ be a field such that for every proper ideal $J$ of $k[x_1;...;x_n]$ ; the ideal set of $V(J)$ is $I(V(J))=rad(J)$ (i.e. Hilbert's Nullstellansatz strong form holds ) . Then ; without using the fact $k$ is algebraically closed ; from the expression of the above mentioned ideal set ; can we conclude that any maximal ideal of $k[x_1;...;x_n]$ is of the form $(x_1-a_1 ; ... ; x_n - a_n )$ ?
Definitely ; if $m$ is a maximal ideal of $k[x_1;...;x_n]$ then $m=rad(m)=I(V(m))$ ; so it will be enough to prove that $I(V(m))= (x_1-a_1 ; ... ; x_n-a_n )$ for some $a_1;...;a_n \in k$ . But I am unable to prove that . Please help
I am not sure what you want here. Your assumption is never satisfied if $k$ is not algebraically closed:
So it necessarily follows that $k$ is algebraically closed; in this case it is ok, but the logic is usually reversed: first you show the weak form of the Nullstellensatz, stating that maximal ideals of $k[x_1,...,x_n]$ correspond to points of $\mathbb A^n_k$, (here $k = \overline{k})$, and afterwards you prove the strong version using the weak one.