At 4:30 of this video the author decided to estimate the standard deviation of the population with sample standard deviation (sample size was $100$).
In the next video, the author mentioned that it was reasonable because the sample size greater than $30$. Well, what tells us that we could estimate standard deviation in this way? Why is $30$ that magical boundary? Does it have anything to do with Central Limit Theorem? (I guess not, because we don't calculating the standard deviation of the mean, so it's not related in any way).
Neither of the two methods of estimating the population standard deviation from the sample produces an unbiased estimate, though the $\frac{1}{n-1}$ method does produce an unbiased estimate of the variance.
If you compare the two estimates of the variance $$s_s^2 = \frac{\sum_i^n (x_i - \bar{x})^2}{n-1}$$ with $$s_p^2 = \frac{\sum_i^n (x_i - \bar{x})^2}{n}$$ then clearly $\frac{s_p^2}{s_s^2} = \frac{n-1}{n}$ and so $$\dfrac{s_p}{s_s} = \sqrt{1-\frac{1}{n}} \approx 1 - \frac{1}{2n}$$ which gets closer to $1$ as $n$ increases (for $n=30$ it is about $0.983$ and for $n=100$ about $0.995$) and this factor is less important than the uncertainty in estimating the population standard deviation from a random sample.