Is there intuitive proof of Euler's product formula in number theory (not searching for probabilistic proof) which is used to compute Euler's totient function?
Euler's product formula in number theory
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On
Intuitively $$\frac1{1-p_i^{-s}} = 1+p_i^{-s} + \left(p_i^{-s}\right)^2 + \cdots =\left(p_i^0\right)^{-s}+\left(p_i^1\right)^{-s} + \left(p_i^2\right)^{-s} + \cdots$$
so
$$\prod\limits_{i=1}^\infty \frac1{1-p_i^{-s}} \\=\left(\left(2^0\right)^{-s}+\left(2^1\right)^{-s} + \left(2^2\right)^{-s} + \cdots \right) \times \left(\left(3^0\right)^{-s}+\left(3^1\right)^{-s} + \left(3^2\right)^{-s} + \cdots \right) \\ \times \left(\left(5^0\right)^{-s}+\left(5^1\right)^{-s} + \left(5^2\right)^{-s} + \cdots \right) \times \cdots \\=\left(2^0\right)^{-s} \left(3^0\right)^{-s} \left(5^0\right)^{-s}\cdots + \left(2^1\right)^{-s} \left(3^0\right)^{-s} \left(5^0\right)^{-s}\cdots + \left(2^0\right)^{-s} \left(3^1\right)^{-s} \left(5^0\right)^{-s}\cdots \\ + \left(2^2\right)^{-s} \left(3^0\right)^{-s} \left(5^0\right)^{-s}\cdots + \left(2^0\right)^{-s} \left(3^0\right)^{-s} \left(5^1\right)^{-s}\cdots + \cdots \\ = \left(2^0 3^0 5^0\right)^{-s} +\left(2^1 3^0 5^0\right)^{-s} +\left(2^0 3^1 5^0\right)^{-s} +\left(2^2 3^0 5^0\right)^{-s} +\left(2^0 3^0 5^1\right)^{-s} +\cdots \\ = 1^{-s} + 2^{-s} + 3^{-s} +4^{-s} +5^{-s} + \cdots \\ = \sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^s}$$
though for a proof you will want to use convergence and the fundamental theorem of arithmetic
On
Presumably you mean $\phi(n)=n\prod_{p|n}(1-1/p)$. Well, I think the best intuition is to understand it.
First, let's look at $\phi(p^n)$. It's easy to see that you can multiply $p$ with any number less than $p^{n-1}$, to get precisely all the numbers less than $p^n$ not relatively prime to $p^n$. Thus we get $\phi(p^n)=p^n-p^{n-1}=p^n(1-1/p)$.
From here all we need is the content of a very famous theorem, called the Chinese Remainder Theorem. It implies that the totient function is multiplicative. That is, when $(m,n)=1$, we have $\phi(mn)=\phi(m)\phi(n)$. As to CRT, it is not that difficult given Bezout's identity.
From these two facts the result follows.
One intuition uses Inclusion-Exclusion. For example, if $n$ is divisible by three distinct primes $p$, $q$, and $r$, then
$$n-\left({n\over p}+{n\over q}+{n\over r}\right)+\left({n\over pq}+{n\over pr}+{n\over qr} \right)-{n\over pqr}$$
counts all the numbers less than $n$ that are not divisible by $p$, $q$, or $r$, which is to say the numbers that are relatively prime to $n$. But we see that this is equal to the product
$$n\left(1-{1\over p} \right)\left(1-{1\over q} \right)\left(1-{1\over r} \right)$$