This is hopefully a quick question stemming from misunderstanding of notation. I am aiming to understand the proof of Proposition 12.17 in Lee's "Introduction to smooth manifolds" which shows that for $\omega \in \Omega^1(M) $ a 1-form on a manifold $M$ and $X, Y \in \text{Vect}(M)$ vector fields, we have $$d \omega(X, Y) = X(\omega(Y)) - Y(\omega(X)) - \omega([X, Y]).$$
We assume for a start that $\omega = u\ dv$ for smooth functions $u, v$, and calculate that $d \omega(X, Y) = (du \wedge dv)(X, Y)$. I would expect this to equal $(du)(X) (dv)(Y)$, however in Lee it is $$(du)(X) (dv)(Y) - (dv)(X) (du)(Y).$$
Where does this difference come from upon evaluation?
You can write the wedge product as the antisymmetrization of the tensor product $du\otimes dv$, i.e. $du\wedge dv = du\otimes dv - dv \otimes du$. This then leads to the answer by the standard relation between $V\otimes V$ and $V^*\times V^*$ where $V^*$ is the dual of $V$.