Let $E'$ be the set of all limit points of a set $E$.
Do $E$ and $E'$ always have the same limit points?
Proof: $E''\subset E'$ because $E'$ is closed.
But inclusion $E'\subset E''$ is false. We can take $\mathbb{R}^1$ with metric $\rho(x,y)=|x-y|$ and set $E=\{1/n: n\in \mathbb{N}\}$. Then $E'=\{0\}$ but $E''=\varnothing$.
Is my example true?
Your counterexample is about as good as it gets.
Interestingly, one can investigate the behaviour of iterating the operation $'$. A key phrase in this direction is Cantor-Bendixson rank.