The following expression (1) is supposedly "trivially" equal to expression (2), and hence the details are not shown in the example. But of course, I can't get it right.
(1) p(A|B,C)*p(B|C)
(2) p(A,B|C) = p(A|C)*p(B|C) (either side of this equation is equivalent to (1), whichever is easier)
I suspect the answer will make me look pretty stupid, but I am stuck. Why/how are they equivalent?
The reason it is deemed trivial is because it is trivial that $$\Pr(A|B)*\Pr(B) = \Pr(A,B)$$ Now, imagine that we restrict the probability space to $C$. Then the equality holds also when all the events are conditioned on $C$.