Can we expect to find no-zero function $ \ f:\mathbb Z \to \mathbb C$ such that $f(n)= -f(-n+m)$ for $m\in \mathbb Z \setminus 3\mathbb Z$ and $n\in \mathbb Z$?
Edit: the example in my mind is: $f(n)=(-1)^n= (e^{\pi i})^n$, this satisfy the above situation if we take $m\in \mathbb Z \setminus 2\mathbb Z.$ I'm willing to generalize the property of $f$ for $m\in \mathbb Z \setminus 3\mathbb Z.$
Define $\, q(n, m) := f(n) + f(-n + m). \,$ Now we are given that $\,0 = q(x,y) \,$ for all $\,x,y \in \mathbb Z\,$ where $\,y \ne 3z.\,$ Given $\, n \in \mathbb Z\,,$ $\,n \ne 3z,\,$ let $\,m=2n\,$ implying $\,0 = f(n) + f(n) \,$ and $\, 0 = f(n).\,$ If $\,n = 3z,\,$ let $\,m=2n+1\,$ also implying $\,0 = f(n) + f(n+1)\,$ but since $\, n+1 \ne 3z\,$ we just proved $\, 0 = f(n+1) \,$ implying $\, 0 = f(n).$ There are many other ways to use the given equations.