I know I'm wrong, but I fail to see why I'm wrong. My goal is to try and find the terms for the Laurent series of $f(z)=\frac{1}{1-\cos(z)}$ but I'm surely off.
$$\begin{align} f(z)&= \frac{1}{1-\cos(z)} \\ &= \sum_{n=0}^\infty \cos(z)^n \\ &= \sum_{n=0}^\infty \left( \sum_{j=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^jz^{2j}}{(2j)!}\right)^n \end{align}$$
Under nothing that I wrote, can $z$ have a negative exponent. However, it is obvious that it should, both by looking at the function and checking my intuition over at Wolfram Alpha.
Where is my reasoning wrong?
As this is a second order pole, you only need consider $\sum_{n=-2}^{\infty} a_{n}z^{n}$. Now, check the limits of $[z^3\cdot f(z)]''/2!$ and $[z^2\cdot f(z)]'/1!$ as $z \rightarrow 0$ and we get $1/2$ and $0$ respectively. Then, evaluate $\lim\; 1/(1-\cos(z)) - 2/z^2 \rightarrow \frac{(1/4!)}{(1/2!)} = 1/6$ as $z \rightarrow 0$. This is as many terms as I went. But there is no noticeable pattern as far as I can see at a first glance.