Im watching a video that goes from
$ p*sin(\phi - \theta) = 0 $
to
$ \phi - \theta = atan2(0,\pm1)$
without any intermediate steps. Could anyone explain the maths behind this? Unsure if its some trigonometric rule I'm missing.
Thanks!
Please note atan2 is the matlab inverse tangent function.
If $ \phi - \theta = x, p*\sin x = 0 $
then please note
$$ x = atan2(0,\pm 1 )$$
means angle $x$ radius vector tip is placed at $x=\pm 1$
$$ x= 0,\pi, 2 \pi,3 \pi ....$$