Flow of time-dependent vector field

1.5k Views Asked by At

Suppose $X_t$ is a time-dependent vector field, with flow $\phi_t$.

Thus,

$$\frac{d}{dt} \phi_t = X_t(\phi_t).$$

Is it true that $$d \phi_t\big(X_t(x)\big) = X_t\big(\phi_t(x)\big)\;?$$

This is true when $X_t$ does not depend on $t$.

2

There are 2 best solutions below

1
On BEST ANSWER

No, this equality does not hold. It is not hard to think of counterexamples, but it may be even better to understand the whole picture.

Any time dependent vector field $X_t$ on the manifold $M$ can be thought of as a constant vector field $X$ on $I\times M$. $X$ is simply defined by $$X(t,p)=\frac{\partial}{\partial t}+X_t(p).$$One can verify that the flow of $X$ on $I\times M$ is equivalent to the flow of $X_t$ on $M$. Namely,$$\Phi_t(s,p)=(t+s,\phi_t(p)),$$ where $\Phi$ denotes the flow of $X$. By the last sentence in the posted question, we have $$d\Phi_t\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial t}+X_0(p)\right)=d\Phi_t(X(0,p))=X(\Phi_t(0,p))=X(t,\phi_t(p))=\frac{\partial}{\partial t}+X_t(\phi_t(p)),$$and hence$$d\phi_t(X_0(p))=X_t(\phi_t(p)),$$which is the correct result.

0
On

The conclusion of Amitai's answer is false.

For a counterexample, consider a vector field $X_t$ for $t \geq 0$ defined on the real line. Suppose that $X_t$ is the trivial vector field for $t=0$, and is a constant non-trivial vector field for $t = 1$. Then the claimed result at the end of the above answer would be saying that $d \phi_1(X_0(p)) = X_1(\phi_1(p))$ for any real number $p$. But the left hand side is the zero vector while the right hand side is non-zero. The flaw in the reasoning of Amitai's answer has been pointed out in a comment on that answer.

On the other hand, as Amitai suggests, the answer to the original question is indeed no. To give more of a hint at how to construct a counterexample to the original question, let's take the real line again. Then take a vector field $X_t$ on the real line such that $\phi_1(0) = 1$ and such that $X_1(0) = 0$ and $X_1(1) = 1$. The push forward of the zero vector by $d \phi_1$ is certainly not non-zero, thus giving a counterexample.