For $a \in \mathbb Z$, $3\mid a$ if and only if $3\mid a^2$?
I don't get how to solve this question.
how would you prove this question?
For $a \in \mathbb Z$, $3\mid a$ if and only if $3\mid a^2$?
I don't get how to solve this question.
how would you prove this question?
On
$3|a^2$
We can write this as,
$a^2=3k$
Taking square root on both sides
$a=\sqrt{3k}$
$a$ is an integer, so $3k$ must be a perfect square, then $k=3t^2$ for some $t$
$a=\sqrt{9t^2}$
$a=3t$
$3|a$
On
It is immediate that
$3 \mid a \Longrightarrow 3 \mid a^2, \tag 1$
as has been so eloquently demonstrated by our friend J.W. Tanner in his answer to the question.
On the other hand, suppose that
$3 \mid a^2, \tag 1$
but
$3 \not \mid a; \tag 2$
then since $3$ is prime,
$\gcd(3, a) = 1; \tag 3$
thus by Bezout's identity there exist
$x, y \in \Bbb Z, \tag 4$
with
$3x + ay = 1; \tag 5$
we multiply through by $a$:
$3ax + a^2 y = a; \tag 6$
but now by assumption (1) we have
$3 \mid 3ax, \; 3 \mid a^2 \Longrightarrow 3 \mid a, \tag 7$
contradicting (2); thus
$3 \mid a \tag 8$
and we are done.
On
It is fun proving things using elementary concepts. Below recourse is made to the binomial theorem and Euclidean division theorem.
See Barry Cipra's answer - it 'lightens the machinery' still further, using two 'step-down' ideas in which the word theorem does not appear.
For the more interesting direction of the equivalence, assume that $3 \nmid a$. Then applying Euclidean division we can write as true
$\tag 1 a = 3 q + r \quad \text{ where } r = 1 \text{ or } r = 2$
When $r = 1$
$\quad a^2 = (3 q + 1)^2 = 3 \times 3 \times q^2 + 3 \times 2 \times q + 1 = 3 (3 q^2 + 2q) + 1$
and using Euclidean division theory we conclude that $3 \nmid a^2$.
When $r = 2$
$\quad a^2 = (3 q + 2)^2 = 3 \times 3 \times q^2 + 3 \times 4 \times q + 4= 3 (3 q^2 + 4q + 1) + 1$
and, again, using Euclidean division theory we conclude that $3 \nmid a^2$.
On
Just for fun, let's do this without invoking the fact that $3$ is prime, but instead using the algebraic identity $a^2-1=(a-1)(a+1)$.
It's a general fact for integers that if $d\mid a$ then $d\mid ab$ (i.e., if $a=dm$ then $ab=dm'$ where $m'=mb$), so $3\mid a\implies 3\mid a^2$ is easy.
Another general fact is that any integer $d\ge1$ divides precisely one of any $d$ consecutive integers, so if $3\mid a^2$, then $3\not\mid a^2-1$, which in turn implies $3\not\mid a-1$ and $3\not\mid a+1$ (as the converse of the previous paragraph's general fact). But $a-1$, $a$, and $a+1$ are three consecutive integers, so if $3\not\mid a-1$ and $3\not\mid a+1$, then we must have $3\mid a$. Thus $3\mid a^2\implies 3\mid a$.
$3|a$ means $a=3k$ for some $k\in\mathbb Z$, so $a^2=3ka$; i.e., $3|a^2$.
On the other hand, if $3|a^2,$ then by Euclid's lemma $3|a$ or $3|a$; i.e., $3|a$.