I understand that the sum $1 + 2+ 3 + \dots + n$ takes the form $\frac{(n+1)n}{2}$.
This can be shown symbolically: $1+2+3+\dots+n$, written backwards is $n+(n-1)+(n-2)+(n-3)+\dots+3+2+1$. If you add these two identical values together, you get: $$1+2+3\\ n+(n-1)+(n-2)$$ $n+1$; if you add the second term of each, you get $(n-1)+2=(n+1)$; the third sum is $(n-2)+3=(n+1)$. Hence, $(n+1)$ $n$ times is double the value.
Before I understood this, however, I figured that there would be a $\frac{1}{2}$ in the term. Take $3^2$ for example, expressed in an actual square: $$1+1+1 \\ 1+1+1\\1+1+1$$ Now, we instead want to sum all integers from $1$ to $3$, we would have: \begin{align} &1\\ &1+1\\ &1+1+1 \end{align}
Of course a right triangle with sides of $n$ is $\frac{1}{2}n^2$. However, the squares which we can use to makeup a larger square don't evenly fit in the triangle.
Does this summation lend itself to any geometric proof?


It does actually. Take the example you posted. You have a right triangle with legs of length $n$. As you said, this triangle has $\sum_{i=1}^{n} i$ squares in it. When you duplicate this triangle and flip it and attach it back diagonally to the original triangle, you get a rectangle of sides $n$ and $n+1$. The area of this is equal to $n(n+1)$, but it is also equal to $2\sum_{i=1}^{n} i$. Therefore $\sum_{i=1}^{n} i=\frac{n(n+1)}{2}$.