Give an example of a sequence of functions $f_n$ which is uniformly convergent on $(-1,1)$ and for which $\{f'_n(0)\}$ is unbounded.
I thought of making the $f'_n$ part first.
If I take, $f'_n(x) = \frac{n}{1+n^2x}$ then $f'_n(0) = n$ which is unbounded.
But from here if I integrate it to make the $f_n(x)$ then it's becoming something like this :
$$f_n(x) = \frac{\ln(1+n^2x)}{n}$$, which not even defined on the $(-1,1)$.
Every time I'm fixing one part, problem keep coming on the other parts.
Can anyone please help me with this example?
Edit : I am thinking of another function I made in a similar manner.
I'm going directly to $f_n(x)$ part.
If $f_n(x) = \arctan nx$ then $f'_n(0) = n$, which is unbounded sequence.
But I'm having difficulty to figure out the uniform convergence of $f_n(x)$ here.
You can take$$f_n(x)=\begin{cases}\frac{(1-x)^{n^2}}n&\text{ if }x\in[0,1)\\\frac2n-\frac{(1+x)^{n^2}}n&\text{ if }x\in(-1,0).\end{cases}$$Then $(f_n)_{n\in\Bbb N}$ converges uniformly to the null function, since$$(\forall x\in(-1,1))(\forall n\in\Bbb N):0<f_n(x)<\frac2n$$and $\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac2n=0$. Besides,$$(\forall n\in\Bbb N):f_n'(0)=-n.$$To give you an idea, the graph of $f_3$ can be seen below: