There is a system of pipes from one point to another. Pipe A is the start point, and connects left to right to Pipe B, C & D, which are in parallel and connect to the end point. The pipes can flow if and only if there is a path A to the end point. In essence, pipe A must work and at least one of B, C & D must work.
The likelihood of any pipe being blocked in $t$ amount of years is modelled by a $\text{Exp}(3)$ distribution, and all pipes are blocked independently of one another.
I have been asked to find the mean time for the system to not work, and if it is known that the system is working, what is the probability that B is not blocked?
First, I would like to find an expression for the likelihood of this system working at time $t$, here is my working:
A, B & C are the event that these pipes are not blocked
$$\begin{align} &\text{Let $Y$ be that the system works at a time $t$} \\ \therefore\quad\mathbb{P}(Y) &= \mathbb{P}(A \cap B) + \mathbb{P}(A \cap C) + \mathbb{P}(A \cap D) \\[1ex]&\text{Since all pipes block independently, and are identically distributed} \\ &= \mathbb{P}(A)\mathbb{P}(B) + \mathbb{P}(A)\mathbb{P}(C) + \mathbb{P}(A)\mathbb{P}(D) \\ &= 3\,\mathbb{P}(A)\mathbb{P}(B) \\[1ex] &{\text{Since A & B are modeled by the remainder of}\\\text{ an exponential distribution with $\lambda$ = 3}} \\ &= 3\cdot(1-(1-e^{-3t}))^{2} \\ &= 3\cdot(e^{-3t})^{2} \\ &= 3e^{-6t} \end{align}$$
For the mean time to failure, I did the following calculation:
\begin{align*} \mathbb{E}(Y) = \int_{0}^{\infty} te^{-6t} dt = \frac{1}{36} \end{align*}
Now, I am having difficulty understanding how to calculate $\mathbb{P}(B \vert Y)$
Here is my working so far, but I am almost certain it is wrong:
\begin{align*} \mathbb{P}(B \vert Y) &= \frac{\mathbb{P}(B \cap Y)}{\mathbb{P}(Y)} \\ \mathbb{P}(B \cap Y) &= \mathbb{P}(B \cap ((A \cap B) \cup (A \cap C) \cup (A \cap D)) \\ &= \mathbb{P}(A\cap B) + \mathbb{P}(B \cap A \cap C) + \mathbb{P}(B \cap A \cap D) \\ &= \mathbb{P}(A)\mathbb{P}(B) + \mathbb{P}(B)\mathbb{P}(A)\mathbb{P}(C) + \mathbb{P}(B)\mathbb{P}(A)\mathbb{P}(D) \\ &= (e^{-3t})^{2} + (e^{-3t})^{3} + (e^{-3t})^{3} \\ &= e^{-6t} + 2e^{-9t} \\ &= e^{-6t}(1 + 2e^{-3t}) \\ \therefore \mathbb{P}(B \vert Y) &= \frac{e^{-6t}(1 + 2e^{-3t})}{3e^{-6t}} = \frac{1 + 2e^{-3t}}{3} \end{align*}
Please let me know where I have messed up, thankyou so much for any help.
You need to apply inclusion exclusion to find $P(Y)$. You're double counting as it is. Luckily you can just use the fact that $P(Y) = P(A)P(B \cup C \cup D) = P(A)(1 - P(B^c \cap C^c \cap D^c ))$, where $B^c$ denotes the complement of $B$. To make computing $P(B | Y)$ easier notice that as $A$ must work, $P(B | Y) = P(B |B \cup C \cup D) = P(B)/P(B \cup C \cup D)$.