My professor said in his lecture, "For Abelian groups $A$, $B$, $C$ and field $F$ $\operatorname{Hom}(A,B)=\operatorname{Hom}_\mathbb{Z} (A, B)$ but $\operatorname{Hom}(C, F) \neq \operatorname{Hom}_F (C\otimes_\mathbb{Z} F, F)$ in general, the equality holds when $C$ is free." Where $\operatorname{Hom}(,)$ contains all of the group homomorphism and $\operatorname{Hom}_F(,)$ contains all F-linear maps.
I can easily see that the former is right since Abelian groups are naturally $\mathbb{Z}$-modules. I'm new to the tensor product, so for the latter, I can't understand what's going on. Why is $C\otimes F$ an $F$-module and why does the equality hold when $C$ is free? Can you also give me an example when $C$ is not free and the equality doesn't hold?
Edit:
According to wikipedia $\operatorname{Hom}_{\mathbb{Z}}(C, F)$ is naturally isomorphic to $\operatorname{Hom}_F (C\otimes_\mathbb{Z} F, F)$ as $F$-modules for any $\mathbb{Z}$-module $C$ (read the last section "Relation between the extension of scalars and the restriction of scalars".)