Recently I am doing a question
A new screening test (Test $A$) is now purposed. It's known that $23\%$ of patients who are $A$ positive will have disease $D$. It's known that $10\%$ of the population are detected to be $A$ positive. The probability that people have disease $D$ is $5\%$. Show that the probability of disease $D$ given $A$ negative is $3.00\%$.
I tried to draw a tree diagram
However, when the probability of $P(A-\mid D)\times P(D)$ is unknown, how can I prove it?
Thank you!!


There are (at least) a couple of ways to go about this. One is to draw up a table, imagining you have a perfectly representative group of $1000$ people:
$$ \begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline & \text{A negative} & \text{A positive} & \text{A sum} \\ \hline \text{D negative} & & & 950 \\ \hline \text{D positive} & & 23 & 50 \\ \hline \text{D sum} & 900 & 100 & 1000 \\ \hline \end{array} $$
Note that:
The first column must sum to $900$, because $9/10$ of the people test negative; the second column sums to $100$, because $1/10$ of the people test positive.
Conversely, the first row must sum to $950$, because $19/20$ of the people don't have the disease; the second row must sum to $50$, because $1/20$ of the people have the disease.
Finally, we know that of the $100$ people who test positive, $23$ of them actually have the disease.
If you fill in the remainder of the table, you should have your answer.
Another way is to use Bayes's theorem, along with a little logic. We know that:
If you note that
$$ P(\text{A positive} \mid \text{D positive}) = \frac{P(\text{D positive} \mid \text{A positive}) P(\text{A positive})} {P(\text{D positive})} $$
and
$$ P(\text{A negative} \mid \text{D positive}) = 1-P(\text{A positive} \mid \text{D positive}) $$
then you can find
$$ P(\text{D positive} \mid \text{A negative}) = \frac{P(\text{A negative} \mid \text{D positive}) P(\text{D positive})} {P(\text{A negative})} $$