I was solving the following problem, "Given a collection of 10 identical objects calculate the number of ways in which these objects can be partitioned into 2 groups of 6 and 4 objects each" - for this I calculate the answer as $\binom{10}{6}$ or $\binom{10}{4}$ and this answer turns out to be correct, but the next question asked to calculate the number of ways to partition into 2 groups of 5 each for which the answer is $\binom{10}{5}/2$, but I am not able to understand why is this the case?
Also can some explain such problems generally i.e taking the case of partitioning n identical objects into r different group equally that is when $n = k*r$. How do you solve such a problem?
The division by $2$ is due to the fact that since $\binom{10}{5}$ counts the number of subsets $A$ with $5$ elements from a base set $B$ with $10$ elements, so it defines the partition $B\simeq(A,A^c)$. On the other hand this partition is also found via $A^c$ since $(A^c,(A^c)^c)=(A^c,A)$ so each partitioning is counted twice.
Regarding the general case of partitioning $n=k\cdot r$ objects into $r$ groups of size $k$, that contains more details. One way to do it is to:
So we have a figure that is $$ G(n,r,k)=\frac{n!}{(k!)^r r!}=\binom{n}{\underbrace{k,k,...,k}_{r\text{ times}}}/r! $$ The notation given in the last part uses the so-called multinomial coefficients which for $r=2$ becomes a binomial coefficient. In particular we have $$ G(10,2,5)=\frac{10!}{(5!)^2 2!}=\binom{10}{5}/2 $$