how to determine if formula satisfies without creating a truth table

Question

$(p \wedge q \wedge r) \wedge (\neg p \vee r)$

So far, what I have got is that $(p \wedge q \wedge r)$ satisfies because if $p$, $q$ and $r = 1$ then $(p \wedge q \wedge r)$ also $= 1$. For $(\neg p \vee r)$ also satisfies because when $p = 0$ and $r = 1$, then $(\neg p \vee r) = 1$.