Using spherical coordinates, I was trying to prove the following dot product formula for 2 3D vectors:
$\vec{u}\cdot\vec{v}=uv\cos(\psi)$
where $\psi$ is the angle between the vectors
My approach was:
$ \vec{u}=<u\sin(\theta_1)\cos(\phi_1), u\sin(\theta_1)\sin(\phi_1), u\cos(\theta_1)> $
$ \vec{v}=<v\sin(\theta_2)\cos(\phi_2), v\sin(\theta_2)\sin(\phi_2), v\cos(\theta_2)> $
$ \vec{u}\cdot\vec{v}=uv\bigg[\sin(\theta_1)\cos(\phi_1)\sin(\theta_2)\cos(\phi_2)+\sin(\theta_1)\sin(\phi_1)\sin(\theta_2)\sin(\phi_2)+\cos(\theta_1)\cos(\theta_2)\bigg] $
$ \vec{u}\cdot\vec{v}=uv\bigg[\sin(\theta_1)\sin(\theta_2)\Big(\cos(\phi_1)\cos(\phi_2)+\sin(\phi_1)\sin(\phi_2)\Big)+\cos(\theta_1)\cos(\theta_2)\bigg] $
$ \vec{u}\cdot\vec{v}=uv\bigg[\sin(\theta_1)\sin(\theta_2)\cos(\phi_1-\phi_2)+\cos(\theta_1)\cos(\theta_2)\bigg] $
$ \vec{u}\cdot\vec{v}=uv\bigg[\sin(\theta_1)\sin(\theta_2)\cos(\Delta\phi)+\cos(\theta_1)\cos(\theta_2)\bigg] $
Upon reaching this stage, I was unsure what to do. The expression in the square brackets should evaluate to the cos of the angle between the two vectors. I decided that I needed to evaluate an expression for this angle (in terms of $\phi_1, \phi_2, \theta_1$ and $\theta_2$) to continue with this proof. How could this be done without dot/cross product?
Alternatively, how would the trigonometric expression in the brackets be reduced to a single cosine function?
Thank you everyone for your input in the comments and thank you especially to @Somos.
The current result was given as:
$\vec{u}\cdot\vec{v}=uv\Bigg[\sin(\theta_1)\sin(\theta_2)\cos(\phi_1−\phi_2)+\cos(\theta_1)\cos(\theta_2)\Bigg]$
As given by @Somos, the spherical law of cosines (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spherical_law_of_cosines) can be used to further simplify this trigonometric expression.
2 random vectors were plotted on https://www.math3d.org/, with their tails at the centre of a sphere.
Here is how they came out (with hand drawing above it):
By comparing both images, it can be seen that the angle C is analogous to $\Delta\phi$:
a, b and c are analogous to $\theta_1$, $\theta_2$ and $\psi$. This is assuming that the angles are in radians so the length of the arc on the unit sphere is the same as the angle subtending that arc.
Therefore it can be proved that, indeed: