I have an assignment due tomorrow and I am beyond stuck on this problem, this course was poorly organized and we are lacking in understanding of a lot of material. We never learned mathematical induction so I'm lost in the wind.
I know how to use Kalish Montegue derivations and sort of figured out I need to somehow prove that (Pi/..Pn)<-->!(!Pi/..!Pn) and likewise (Pi/..Pn)<-->!(!Pi/..!Pn) from how the question was set up but no clue on how to start or how to use the induction.
Any pointers would be helpful, thank you.
When you have show that $\neg(A\circ B)=\neg A\bullet \neg B$ for any $A,B$, then if you assume that $\neg(P_1\circ\ldots\circ P_n)=\neg P_1\bullet\ldots\bullet\neg P_n$, what may you infer about $\neg(P_1\circ\ldots\circ P_n\circ P_{n+1})$?