Let $f:[0,t]\rightarrow \mathbb{R^+}$ be a deterministic and integrable and $(B_t)_{t\geq 0}$ is a standard Brownian motion. If $X_t=\int_o^tf(s)dB_s$, we know that $X_t$ has normal distribution with mean zero.
- Does the correlation between $X_t$ and $B_t$ equal to $1$?
- If 1. is true, can I consider $X_t$ as $g(t)B_t$ for some $g$?