If $A$ and $B$ are two disjoint events, then would $P(A\mid B)$ equal 0 or would it just equal $P(A)$ considering $P(B)$ doesn't effect it?
2026-04-26 08:43:19.1777192999
If $A$ and $B$ are disjoint events, then $P(A\mid B)$ is?
3k Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
2
$\mathbb{P}(A\mid B)=\dfrac{\mathbb{P}(A \cap B)}{\mathbb{P}(B)}=0$ because $\mathbb{P}(A \cap B)=\mathbb{P}(\varnothing)=0$.
Intuitively, because $A$ and $B$ do not occur together, given that we know $B$ has occurred, we know for sure that $A$ has not occurred. So the conditional probability of $A$ given $B$ should be $0$.