If $a_i>0$ and $\sum_{i=1}^n a_i = 1$, is $\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{a_i} \geq n^2$? I'm doing an inequality exercise. If I can confirm that's true, then my proof is done. I wrote down some examples and they are all true. I guess we need to compare each $\frac{1}{a_i}$ with $\frac{1}{n}$.
2026-02-22 23:29:59.1771802999
If $a_i>0$ and $\sum_{i=1}^n a_i = 1$, then $\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{a_i} \geq n^2$?
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HM-AM says
$$\frac{n}{\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{a_k}} \leq \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^na_k.$$
So, you are done.