Let $X$ and $Y$ be subspaces of an euclidean space. If $X$ is homemorph to $Y$ that is $X\approx Y$ ($f$,$f^{-1}$ continuous and $f$ bijective) and $X$ convex. Prove that $Y$ is not necessary convex.
I found a counterexample in this link Are homeomorphisms convex-preserving?
$\varphi:(x,y)\mapsto (x,y^3)$. It is a homeomorphism ($\varphi^{-1}:(x,y)\mapsto (x,\sqrt[3]{y}$) and the image of the first diagonal is $y=x^3$ which is not convex.
I do not see clear what is $Y$ in this case.
Also what it means with "the image of the first diagonal is $y=x^3$" ?
where does it come from?
If someone could explain please, thank you.
Just for the sake of a proof without words: