If $X$ has a binomial distribution with parameters $n$ and $p$, show that
\begin{align*} \textbf{E}\left(\frac{1}{1+X}\right) = \frac{1-(1-p)^{n+1}}{(n+1)p} \end{align*}
MY ATTEMPT
Since $X\sim\text{Binomial}(n,p)$, we have \begin{align*} \textbf{E}\left(\frac{1}{1+X}\right) & = \sum_{x=0}^{n}{n\choose x}\frac{p^{x}(1-p)^{n-x}}{1+x} = (1-p)^{n}\sum_{x=0}^{n}{n\choose x}\frac{1}{1+x}\left(\frac{p}{1-p}\right)^{x}\\\\ & = \frac{(1-p)^{n+1}}{p}\sum_{x=0}^{n}{n\choose x}\frac{1}{1+x}\left(\frac{p}{1-p}\right)^{x+1} \end{align*}
This is as far as I can get. Could someone help me out? Thanks in advance!
You can also sidestep the summation by using the moment generating function (via the Laplace transform). For any $X>-1$,
$$\frac{1}{1+X} = \int_0^{+\infty} e^{-(1+X)t}dt,$$
so, taking the expectation,
$$\mathbb{E} \left(\frac{1}{1+X}\right) = \mathbb{E} \left( \int_0^{+\infty} e^{-(1+X)t}dt\right) = \int_0^{+\infty} e^{-t} \mathbb{E} \left( e^{-tX}\right) dt.$$
The moment generating function of the binomial distribution is $\mathbb{E} \left( e^{-tX}\right) = (1-p+pe^{-t})^n$. Insert this value in the integral, solve the integral (there is an explicit antiderivative), and get the result.