Let $X,Y\sim U(0,1)$, I'm trying to figure out $E[Y\mid X+Y>1]$.
I get to the correct answer by following this line:
$$E[Y\mid X+Y>1] = \frac{E[Y\,1_{Y>1-X}]}{P(X+Y>1)}=2\iint y1_{y>1-x}\,dx\,dy=\frac{2}{3} $$
However I can't wrap my head around why this is false:
\begin{align} E[Y\mid X+Y>1] &= \int{E[E[Y\mid X+Y>1]\mid X=x]}f_{X}(x)\,dx \\&= \int{E[Y\mid Y>1-x]}\,dx \\&=\int\frac{\int y1_{y>1-x}\,dy}{P(Y>1-x)}\,dx \\&= \int\left(1-\frac{x}{2}\right)dx \\&=\frac{3}{4} \end{align}
I used to be familiar with this concept but this eludes me right now, any intuition would be appreciated. Thank you.
I spent quite a while trying to figure out what formula you were attempting to use. In the end, I just had to rephrase what the formulas seemed to say.
It's apparent that this won't work because the points on the line $y=1-\frac{x}{2}$ in the second case have equal weight instead of the weight depending on the width of the slice $1-x < y < 1$.
In other words, in order for this to work, we would need some sort of independence assumption, and conditioned on $X+Y > 1$, $Y$ and $X$ are definitely not independent.