I expect that if $A$ is open set in $\mathbb R^n$ with the usual topology, then $A$ is contained in the interior of the closure of $A$.
But the converse is not necessarily true, I think that this is a hint for the pursued set.
The motivation of this claiming is because I want a bounded open set $A$ in which a bounded continuous real valued function defined all over $\mathbb R^n$ is Darboux integrable over the closure of a whilst it isn't over $A$ itself.
Again the motivation of the aforementioned motivation is that there is a theorem stating that if an integral of an function exists over a bounded set then it exists at the interior of this set and both are equal, so it seems rather absurd, but I think it is to show that $A$ is not the interior of closure of $A$.
Edit: Please if the answer may follows the motivation it would be of great help! Thank you in advance.
Let $A$ = $(0,1) \cup (1,2)$, then $A$ is open, bounded and we have $Cl(A) = [0,2]$ but $Int(Cl(A)) = Int([0,2])= (0,2) \neq A$.