Is it possible for an Ideal I to be nil and yet $I^n \neq 0$ $\forall n \in \mathbb{N}$?
I think it should be. For an ideal to be nil it means if $x \in I$, then there is a $n \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $x^n = 0$.
I am just a little curious.. Thanks in advance!
Set things up so you have elements $a_n$ in your ideal with $a_n^{n-1}\ne0$ and $a_n^n=0$. So let's take $$R=\Bbb Z[x_1,x_2,x_3\ldots]/\left\langle x_1,x_2^2,x_3^3,\ldots\right\rangle.$$ Write $a_i$ for the image of $x_i$ in $R$. These $a_i$ generate an ideal $I$ all of whose elements are nilpotent, but $I^n$ has the nonzero element $a_{n+1}^n$.