Assume the IVP or powerseries definitions of $\sin$ and $\cos$ for this question.
It's a basic geometric fact that:
Theorem. Given a pair $(x,y)$ of real numbers, the following are equivalent:
- $\exists \theta \in \mathbb{R}(x = \cos \theta \wedge y = \sin \theta)$
- $x^2+y^2 = 1$
However, proving this rigorously seems to be rather non-trivial. The direction $(1) \rightarrow (2)$ is straightforward; it's equivalent to $\cos^2\theta +\sin^2\theta = 1,$ which can itself be proved by differentiating $\cos^2 \theta+\sin^2\theta$ and obtaining $0$, thereby showing that it's a constant function. However, showing $(2) \rightarrow (1)$ seems to be much harder. One idea I had was to first show that the equation $x^2+y^2=1$ defines a smooth $1$-dimensional submanifold of $\mathbb{R}^2$. We can then use:
Conjecture. Let $\gamma : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow X$ denote a path in a connected $1$-dimensional Riemannian manifold with constant non-zero speed. Then $\gamma$ is surjective.
My questions are twofold:
Questions.
Q0. Is this even true?
Q1. If so, are there generalizations to the case where the domain of $\gamma$ is replaced by $\mathbb{R}^n$?
The geometrical angle bisector is the line through $(x,y)+(1,0)=(x+1,y)$. This ray has $$\frac{(x+1,y)}{\sqrt{2+2x}}=\left(\sqrt{\frac{x+1}2},\frac{y}{\sqrt{2(x+1)}}\right)$$ as its point on the unit circle. The sequence of angle bisectors $(x_0,y_0)=(x,y)$, $$(x_{n+1},y_{n+1})=\frac{(x_n+1,y_n)}{\sqrt{2+2x_n}}$$ converges to $(1,0)$ and will thus reach a neighborhood of that point where you can easily prove that it is covered by the definitions of the trigonometric functions around $θ=0$.