I was given the task of showing that $(\lnot p \implies p) \vdash p$ cannot be proven in constructive logic (that is, a system with no excluded middle, double negation, or $\lnot$-elimination).
I'm trying to assume that a proof for it exists and use that to show the law of excluded middle, or double negation to arrive at a contradiction. However, I'm a bit stuck and I'm not sure if this is the right approach.
Any input appreciated!
Yes. We can reduce as $$(\lnot p\to p)\to p,\lnot\lnot p\vdash p,$$ and then it suffices to show $$ (\lnot p\to p)\to p, \lnot\lnot p\vdash \lnot p \to p,$$ and again we can reduce that to $$ (\lnot p\to p)\to p,\lnot\lnot p, \lnot p\vdash p,$$ and we see we have a statement and its negation to the left of the turnstyle and we're done.
Observe that the left-hand side of the turnstyle in your title has the schematic form of proof by contradiction (note, nothing would change with the above proof if we replaced with $(\lnot p \to \bot)\to p$, and indeed this does not change the semantics of the statement, since we can prove $\bot$ from $\lnot p$ if and only if we can prove $p$ from $\lnot p$). Thus, we might expect this to be an equivalence. And it is... try to prove the other direction.