Is this a correct way to think about Bayes Rule?

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We know that in probability theory that if events $A, B$ are independent of each other, then the probability of them both happening is $$ P(A\cap B) = P(A)\cdot P(B). $$

For Bayes Rule we know that $$ P(A\cap B) = P(A|B)\cdot P(B). $$

Does this mean that we can think of it as a correction that the probabilities $P(B)$ and $P(A|B)$ are independent of each other, or an extension of the original rule?

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The word "independence" is used to describe events, not probabilities, so it doesn't make sense to say that two probabilities $\mathbb P(B)$ and $\mathbb P(A|B)$ are independent. You can think of it as if $A$ and $B$ are independent, then $\mathbb P(A)=\mathbb P(A|B)$, as the probability of $A$ occurring does not change whether or not $B$ occurs. So we have $$\mathbb P(A\cap B)=\mathbb P(A)\mathbb P(B)=\mathbb P(A|B)\mathbb P(B)$$ as $\mathbb P(A)=\mathbb P(A|B)$.