Here $Z \sim N(0,1), S_n = \sum_{k=1}^{n} Z_k$, and all $Z_n$ are iid.
To prove convergence in probability of $\frac{S_n}{n} \to_n 0$ it is shown that $P\left(\left|\frac{S_n}{n}\right|> \varepsilon\right) \to_n 0$. I then realized that the fact that $L=0$ is the limit is not proven. I decided to show that.
Assume $$ \frac{S_n}{n} \to_n L $$ with $L \neq 0$. Wlog $L >0$. I get: $$ P\left(\left|\frac{S_n}{n}- L \right|>\varepsilon\right)= 2 P(S_n > n(L +\varepsilon)) = 2 \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi n}} \int_{n(L+\varepsilon)}^{\infty} e^{-\frac{s^2}{2n}}ds $$ by symmetry of Gaussian rvs and taking $\varepsilon < L$ to make $L-\varepsilon>0$. Obviously this probability $\to_n 0$, so $L$ is a limit, too? Clearly if the limit exists, it is unique, so I got a contradiction. Could somene pls show where I made a mistake in my logic.