I want to find the Maclaurin Series of $f(x) = xe^x$.
So naturally I derived the function a bunch of times and found that:
$f(x) = e^x(x+0)$
$f'(x) = e^x(x+1)$
$f''(x) = e^x(x+2)$
$f'''(x) = e^x(x+3)$
...
$f^{(n)}(x) = e^x(x+n)$
And with $x_0 = 0$ I get $f^{(n)}(x_0) = n$
Now the formula for building this series is $\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(k)(x_0)}}{k!}x^k$
So my question is why is this series $\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{k+1}}{k!}$ and not $\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{k}{k!}x^k$ ?
I'm new to the subject and might have got something totally wrong. In any case, thanks a lot for your answers!
This is just a matter of re-indexation.
$$\sum\limits_{k=0}^\infty \dfrac{kx^k}{k!}=\sum\limits_{k=1}^\infty \dfrac{kx^k}{k!}=\sum\limits_{k=1}^\infty \dfrac{x^k}{(k-1)!}=\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{x^{n+1}}{n!}=\sum\limits_{k=0}^\infty \dfrac{x^{k+1}}{k!}$$