Main question: Can I interpret $(\mathbf{v} \cdot \nabla) \mathbf{v}$ as $\nabla v \cdot v$?
My question comes from the wikipedia page on euler equations. I captured the relevant parts below:
The part that confuses me is the notation
$${\partial\mathbf{u} \over \partial t} + (\mathbf{u} \cdot \nabla) \mathbf{u} = -\nabla w + \mathbf{g}$$
When I tried to derive the equation myself, using the chain rule, I got ${D\mathbf v(x,t) \over Dt}= \nabla v \cdot x'(t) + \frac{\partial}{\partial t} v(x,t) = \nabla v \cdot v + \frac{\partial}{\partial t} v(x,t) $.
Assuming I did not make mistakes, can I interpret $(\mathbf{v} \cdot \nabla) \mathbf{v}$ as $\nabla v \cdot v$?

To answer your main question, I would say “sort of.” The ambiguity when you write $\nabla v\cdot v$ is it doesn’t specify what part of $\nabla v$ the dot product is hitting. $\nabla v$ has two different “vector” parts (specifically it is a rank 2 tensor): the one from $\nabla$ and the one from $v$. It is important that the $v$ is being dotted with the $\nabla$, not the other $v$. That’s why it’s often written $(v\cdot\nabla)v$. The least ambiguous way to write it is in coordinates: $$(v\cdot\nabla v)_i=\sum_{i=1}^dv_j\partial_jv_i$$ if you are in $d$-dimensional space. The intuitive way to think about this operation is you are taking the directional derivative in the direction $v$ of each coordinate of $v_i$.