Can you help med find an example of a metric on $\mathbb Q$ and $x,y\in \mathbb Q$ such that the product $d(x,0)\cdot d(y,0)\neq d(xy,0)$?
Reason: I am looking into Ostrowski's theorem (which appears to be given for valuations), and I was wondering whether the result could be stated for metrics as well. Clearly, a valuation gives rise to a metric, but does every metric induce a valuation?
Thank you
As you mentioned, in the case of concepts relating to Ostrowski theorem, we deal with valuations or equivalently, norms on fields. Specially, we define a norm on a field $K$ to be a function $\|.\|:K\to[0,\infty)$ satisfying
where from 3 and 4 we find out $\|1\|=1$.
The condition $d(x,0)d(y,0)\ne d(xy,0)$ therefore, becomes $\|x\|\cdot\|y\|\ne \|xy\|$ which by above definition, is equivalent to $$\|xy\|<\|x\|\cdot \|y\|\tag{*}$$ i.e. you look for norms which satisfy $(*)$.
You may note that Ostrowki theorem is about special norms called "absolute values"