I am trying to find the MGF of a random vector where $Z_i\overset{iid}\sim N(0,1)$
the new Random Vector is $X\overset{d}=\mu+AZ$ where $\mu\in\mathbb{R^k}$ and $A\in\mathbb{R}^{k\times m}$
where $A$ is not assumed to be full rank. I know that this will be a normal but I was considering what the variance of this random variable would be. I know that if $A$ is orthonormal then independence follows where $A$ is assumed to be a square matrix. If the Matrix $A$ is not a square matrix then if I assume $\text{rank}(A)=m$ then I know that the $\text{rank}(A^T)=m$ and the variance of $X$ is $AA^T$. If I consider whether $AA^T$ is positive definite that is $y^{T}AA^Ty=0$ then $y=0$. I can show that $A^Ty=0$ by using the euclidean norm but since $\text{rank}(A^T)=m$ then $y$ does not have to be $0$ if $k>m$. I can't see a scenario where this is not a degenerate random vector when $A$ is not square of full rank. Am I missing something? How do I go about solving for the MGF in general case without imposing assumptions?
$X$ is multivariate normal with mean $\mu$ and covariance matrix $AA^\top$, regardless of the shape and rank of $A$. You can then immediately write down the MGF: $M_X(t) = e^{\mu^\top t + \frac{1}{2} t^\top AA^\top t}$.
You seem to care more about whether $X$ is degenerate. The following are equivalent.
Now, note that the third statement here implies $k \le m$. Phrased in another way, if $m < k$ then $\text{rank}(A) \le m < k$ and thus $X$ will be degenerate.