I have just started Measure Theory from Bartle, The Elements of Integration and Lebesgue Measure, where he defines Measurable Functions as:

What is the motivation for this? How is it related/equivalent to the more standard way of defining measurable functions by considering elements as pre-images?
If we consider the measurable space $(X , \mathscr{F})$, then a function $f: X \rightarrow X$ is said to be measurable if the preimage $f^{-1}(A) \in \mathscr{F}$ for all sets $A \in \mathscr{F}$. Note that I have changed the bold X in your screenshot to the more common notation of $\mathscr{F}$ - this is to avoid confusion between $X$ and X (which might be creating some unnecessary confusion).
Expanding out the definition of a preimage tells us that this is equivalent to requiring that :
$$ \{ x \in X : f(x) \in A \space \text{and} \space A \in \mathscr{F} \} \in \mathscr{F}$$
Note that if we let $A$ be the interval $(\alpha, + \infty)$ and substitute this into the above definition, then we have the result in the definition you have posted. Here the function $f$ is said to be $\mathscr{F}$-measurable.