According to my understanding, the following statement is false.
For any $n$ events ${A_i}^n_{i=1}$, if $P(⋂^n_{i=1}A_i) = ∑^n_{i=1}P(A_i)$, then ${A_i}^n_{i=1}$ are mutually independent.
But, I was told that it is True. I am confused now, I thought instead of summation (∑) of probabilities, it had to be the product. What am I missing?