Let $(M, g), (N, h)$ be two Riemannian manifolds and $u: M \to N$ a smooth function. I would like to know how to show that, for $x \in M$, $$|\nabla u|^2(x) = g^{\alpha \beta}(x)h_{ij}(u(x)) \frac{\partial u^i}{\partial x^\alpha} \frac{\partial u^j}{\partial x^\beta}.$$
I know that in the case $f: M \to \mathbb R$, we define (locally) $$\nabla f = (g^{\alpha \beta} \partial_\alpha f )\partial_\beta,$$ which comes from the fact that we want $$g_p(\nabla f|_p, v) = df_p(v), \quad \forall v \in T_pM.$$ I guess we can define the gradient more or less the same way for $u: M \to N$, i.e. $$g(\nabla u, v) = du(v), \quad \forall v \in TM,$$ but now $du(v)$ is in $TN$ which means that the $g$ in the left hand side isn't really our Riemannian metric anymore (as it is not valued in $\mathbb R$). Admitting that this $g$ has locally the same components as the Riemannian metric, we would have locally $$g \nabla u = du \quad \Leftrightarrow \quad \nabla u = g^{-1}du$$ which implies $$\nabla u = \left(g^{ik} \frac{\partial u^k}{ \partial x^j}\right) \frac{\partial }{\partial y^i} \otimes dx^j.$$ It seems to more or less make sense with the form of $|\nabla u|^2$ above but it lacks details (in my opinion). Could any one of you explain clearly what's happening here ?
My preferred way of viewing $du$ is as a section of the vector bundle $T^*M \otimes f^*TN \to M$. Hence, if you end up contracting a metric $\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle$ on this vector bundles coming from $T^*M$ and $f^*TN$ respectively, then you end up precisely with the expression $$ \langle du(x),du(x) \rangle=|d u(x)|^2 = g^{\alpha \beta}(x)h_{ij}(u(x)) \frac{\partial u^i}{\partial x^\alpha} \frac{\partial u^j}{\partial x^\beta} $$ in local coordinates. Now, we have $$ |\nabla u|^2=|du|^2 $$ since the Riesz isomorphism (or musical isomorphism, the thing identifying vectors and their duals) is isometric.