I've been told that p(R|Q) = p(R|P ∧ Q) if and only if P, R and Q are independent, but I can't see why this is the case. Can someone please help me out?
2026-04-24 03:16:11.1777000571
p(R|Q) = p(R|P ∧ Q) if and only if P, Q and R are independent
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