I have a friend that believes that the Pasch's axiom can be proven via Menelaus theorem (!?). However, I believe that it's required in the Menelaus proof. Can you provide me a Menelaus proof and the exact point in proof where it's required?
2026-04-01 04:27:42.1775017662
Pasch's axiom via Menelaus theorem!?!?!?
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