Posterior distribution as a distribution for a new random variable?

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So in Bayesian framework one uses observed data $X=\{x_1,\dots,x_n\}$ to update the prior $p(\theta)$. My question is it justified mathematically to say that $p(\theta\mid x_1,\dots,x_n)$ corresponds to a new random variable itself?

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If you believe that the prior can be represented by a random variable, then the assertion follows by Bayes' Theorem. The difficult and controversial issue with the Bayesian framework is whether you believe that there is a prior distribution. I happen to not believe in it.