Let $A_n$ denote the probability of a car not working on day n. Suppose $A_n=0$ mean car doesn't work and $A_n=1$ means car works, If $A_n$ converges to 1 in $\mathbb{P}$,where $\mathbb{P}$ is a probability measure. How frequent (often) do we have $A_n=0$?
This question quite frankly makes little sense to me. How do we have convergence in measure when we don't have a random variable involved? Are we supposed to implicitly assume a random variable is being used? Also, what does it mean "how often (or synonymously, frequent; as used in lecture notes) do we have a probability $A_n$? Im not sure how to tackle the problem