I am trying to understand a solved question about statistics.
I have two identical independent binomial random variables X and Y with identical pmfs
$P[X=x]={100 \choose x}0.05^x0.95^{100-x}$
and
$P[Y=y]={100 \choose y}0.05^y0.95^{100-y}$
Then, to calculate the probability of $A=\{X>5 , Y>3\}$
It says
$P[X >5, Y>3]= (1-P[X\leq 5])(1-P[Y\leq 3])$
I cannot visualize this. $(1-P[X\leq 5])$ is the probability of $X$ being greater than 5 and $(1-P[Y\leq 3])$ is the probability of $Y$ being greater than 3, thus, if I get it correctly, I will be calculating $P[X >5\cup Y>3]$ and not $P[X >5\cap Y>3]$, which is what it is asked. Can someone please tell me what am I understanding wrong?
I know that this is actually what has to be done, since it coincides with $F(\infty, \infty)-F(5, \infty)-F(\infty, 3)+F(5,3)$, but it seems to me that I am calculating the union, not the intersection.
Use independence first and then go to complements.
By independence $P[X>5,Y>3]=P[X>5] P[Y>3]$.
Also, $P[X>5]=1-P[X \leq 5]$ and $P[Y>3]=1-P[Y \leq 3]$.
So $P[X>5,Y>3]=(1-P[X \leq 5])(1-P[Y \leq 3])$.