Probability theory combinatorics problem (with given probabilities)

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Bowl C contains 6 red and 4 blue chips. 5 of these chips were selected at random and without replacement and put in bowl D, which was originally empty.

a) What is the probability that 2 red chips and 3 blue chips were transferred from bowl C to bowl D?

b) One chip is then drawn at random from bowl D. Given that this chip is blue, find the conditional probability that 2 red chips and 3 blue chips were transferred from bowl C to D.

Actually, I managed to solve point a). If I am correct, P(2 red and 3 blue chips were transferred from bowl C to D)=5/21.

Probability from b) can be transformed by the Bayes rule. P(draw a blue chip from bowl D| 2 red and 3 blue chips were transferred from bowl C to D)=3/5. It is left to find probability of drawing a blue chip from bowl D. Should I use the total probability formula and calculate conditional probabilities for all possible amounts of blue chips in bowl D (4 out of 5, 3 out of 5, etc.) or is there another way?

P.S. one of my groupmates suggested that probability of drawing a blue chip would be 4/10, which, to my mind, is a complete nonsense.

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If the event of transferring $2$ red and $3$ blue chips to the bowl $D$ is $A$ and the event of drawing a blue chip from bowl $D$ is $B$,

$P(A|B) = \cfrac{P(B|A) \cdot P(A)}{P(B)}$

$P(B)$ is simply $\cfrac{2}{5}$ as there are $4$ blue chips out of $10$ to start with in bowl $C$. The approach you wrote in your question is not incorrect but it is unnecessary. It does not change the unconditional probability of drawing a blue chip just because we first randomly moved a few chips from bowl $C$ to $D$ and then picked from $D$.

As you wrote, $P(B|A)$ is $\cfrac{3}{5}$ as it is the probability of drawing a blue chip given we have $2$ red and $3$ blue chips in bowl $D$.

$P(A)$ is $\cfrac{5}{21}$, what you already calculated correctly in $(a)$.

So you now have everything you need to find $P(A|B)$.

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A) It seems correct.

B) Both you and your groupmate's solutions are correct. Of course, one solution is simpler than the other :) The explanation is that, before starting the experience, each of the 10 chips has the same probability to be the final observed chip. The fact that we first move some chips from C to D before does not change that. (Of course, when you look at the content of bowl D, the posterior probability knowing the content of D may become different from 4/10).