I've seen a lot of "proofs" for this - but they all somehow revolve around the definition of $tan(x)$ being $\frac{opposite}{adjacent}$. I am coming from the standpoint of being unconvinced that this is true, while looking at the following diagram:
Forgetting for a minute that $\overline{AB}$ is defined as the "tangent" - How can I geometrically prove that $\overline{AB}$ is really $\frac{opposite}{adjacent}$ or $\frac{sin}{cos}$?
I believe this would also probably not be able to avoid the fact that $\overline{OB}$ is cosecant. I likewise can't probe this (hope I can once $tan(\theta)$ is clear...


Use similarity. $\Delta OAC$ and $\Delta ABC$ are similar. When two triangles have congruent angles, then they must be similar. When this is the case, the ratio between the lengths of corresponding sides must be equivalent. Use $\angle O$ as the reference.
$$\Delta OAC \implies \frac{adjacent}{hypotenuse} = \frac{\cos O}{1}$$
$$\Delta ABC \implies \frac{adjacent}{hypotenuse} = \frac{\sin O}{\overline{AB}}$$
The two ratios must be equivalent.
$$\frac{\cos O}{1} = \frac{\sin O}{\overline{AB}}$$
$$\cos O\cdot \overline{AB} = \sin O \implies \overline{AB} = \frac{\sin O}{\cos O} \implies \overline{AB} = \tan O$$